This is an interesting study reported in The Guardian, which hits on many big concepts in epidemiology...
Researchers found that men who were prescribed Viagra and similar
medications were 18% less likely to develop the most common form of
dementia years later than those who went without the drugs.
1. What is the PICO for this study?
2. Were the researchers measuring incidence or prevalence? What RR figure corresponds to "18% less likely", and what is the name of this RR? Who is in the numerator and who is in the denominator of the RR?
"The effect was strongest in men with the most prescriptions.."
3. What two-word epi concept should immediately jump in your head?
Brauer and her colleagues analysed medical records for more than 260,000
men who were diagnosed with erectile dysfunction but had no evidence of
memory or thinking problems.
Just over half were taking PDE5 inhibitor drugs, including sildenafil
(sold as Viagra), avanafil, vardenafil and tadalafil. The men were
followed for an average of five years to record any new cases of
Alzheimer’s.
4a. What is the study design? Dementia is fairly rare, and PDE5 use fairly common - surely a case-control study is more appropriate?
4b. Why not include all men in the study?
5. What are the hypothesised mediation (causal pathways)?
6. There is acknowlegement of known but unmeasured confounders. (I found four in the article...) Explain the implications.
If PDE5 inhibitors do protect against Alzheimer’s, the drugs would be
expected to work in women as well as men. “We think it would be very
worthwhile to run a trial in a wide group of people,” Brauer said.
7. Do you think a randomised trial is justified? What ethical or methodological limitations do you anticipate?